The Lord's Supper
Is it still necessary after 70 AD?
By Richard K. McPherson
This topic is discussed among Preterits, today. Some
say that this and baptism are still required and other say that it is not. So, who
is right and who is wrong? This article is not to say one is right and the
other is wrong, but to let the scriptures speak for itself.
If you feel that I am taking scriptures out of context, please tell me.
Let us start in 1
Corinthians 11:17-34. While quoting this text, I will be adding the Greek
meaning to certain words. I hope this will make the text easier to understand.
“In the following directives
I have no praise for you, for your meetings do more harm than good. In the
first place, I hear that when you come together as a church, (“church” being
people NOT the building) there are divisions among you, and to some extent I
believe it. Not doubt there have to be differences among you to show which of
you have God’s approval. When you come together, it is not the Lord’s Supper
you eat, for as you eat, each of you goes ahead without waiting for anybody
else. One remains hungry and another gets drunk. Don’t you have homes to eat
and drink in? Or do you despise the
In this text, it appears
that the church in
In Matthew’s account, the
disciples came to Jesus and asked Him, “Where do you want us to make
preparations for you to eat the Passover?”(26:17) It
is from here that man has comes up with the phase “The Lord’s Supper”. This
phase is never used in the Bible, but is taught as fact.
Matthew 26:27-28 puts it
this way.
“….Drink from it, all
of you. This is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the
forgiveness of sins. I tell you, I will not drink of this fruit of the vine
from now on until that day when I drink it anew with you in my Father’s
kingdom.”
Luke
According
to the context, Jesus will not eat what? The Passover, until
when? 70 AD, at the fulfillment of the
I would like to pose some
questions, here.
When was “until that
day”? 70 AD
Who was Jesus taking to in
this text? His disciples
When did the “Father’s
kingdom” come? 70 AD (1 Corinthians
When did the “new covenant”
come? 70 AD
If the blood is the “Covenant”
or in the other gospels, the “New Covenant” and the first century Christians
were looking forward for that New Covenant, then yes the meaning of the supper
would make sense. If Christ has not come then we will still are living under
the Old Covenant and still looking forward for a New Covenant. (Hebrews 8:13,
10:8-9) The supper would still be just like the first century Christians. The
forgiveness of sin did not happen until Jesus’ return. (Hebrews 9:23-28, Luke
21:28, Revelation 10:7) We are under the New Covenant, today. Everything has
been fulfilled.
Now let us define something
here. What do these words or phases mean, for example: In Acts
“They devoted themselves to
the apostles’ teaching and to the fellowship, to the breaking of bread and to
prayer.”
Also in Acts 20:7: “On the
first day of the week we came together to break bread. Paul spoke to the people
and, because he intended to leave the next day, kept on talking until
Cecil Hook wrote in Free in Christ about this text.
“We use this text to prove that the Lord’s Supper it be taken on Sunday’s, (We call this the Lord’s day for some
reason, like Monday and the other are not the Lord’s Day, emph.
RKM), BUT we assume that this “breaking of bread” is the Communion rather
than a love feast or fellowship meal. Although there is no proof of it, we will
grant that it was the Communion for argument’s sake. If they met to commune, it
does not indicate that they had been doing so previously or that they continued
to do so the next week and thereafter. There is no indication that this was
done except on that particular weekend.
This is the only time the breaking of bread is mentioned in the
connection with the first day of the week!
There is no clear example of the Lord’s Supper ever being eaten on the
first day of the week. At Toras, it they met
according to Roman (and our) manner of reckoning time, they met to eat it on
our Sunday night, but did not partake until Monday morning, because of Paul’s
long discourse. If they followed the Jewish calendar, they met to partake of it
on our Saturday night. Would we be right in participation on Saturday night or
Monday morning?”
What is “the breaking of bread”?
The
“breaking of bread” is generally associated with the Lord’s Supper.
Nevertheless, there is nothing in the context to indicate that this activity is
the Lord’s Supper. The expression breaking of bread is also an idiom for a
common meal. In fact, in Acts 2:46-47, one reads: Every day they continued to
meet together in the temple courts. They broke bread in their homes and ate
together with glad and sincere hearts, praising God and enjoying the favor of
all the people”. If the “breaking of bread’ refers to the Lord’s Supper, then
they observed the communion a daily basis, not just on Sundays.
Which
of these nine examples of details concerning the so call “Lord’s Supper” are
binding? It was eaten:
1.
at night
2.
upstairs
3.
in midweek
4.
during another
meal
5.
with no women
present
6.
one loaf
7.
of unleavened
bread
8.
one cup
9.
of Passover wine which could not have been fresh grape
juice at that season.
Which exemplified details
are binding and which are not? If God means what he says and He says what he
means, then by examples and with the right attitude the Lord’s Supper should be
kept. The first century Christians had hope by looking for salvation and the
resurrection, after 70 AD we have assurance and everything has been fulfilled.
Is there a difference
between the “Lord’s supper” and “supper of the Lamb”? Are there two different
types of suppers being taught in the Bible?
Turn to Revelation 19:6-9:
“’….
Hallelujah!! For our Lord God Almighty reigns. Let us
rejoice and be glad and give him glory! For the wedding of
the Lamb has come and his bride has make herself ready. Fine linen,
bright and clean, was given her to wear.” Then the angel said to me, “Write,
Blessed are those who are invited to the wedding
supper of the Lamb!’….”
Also in verse 17: “And I saw an angel standing
in the sun, who cried in a loud voice to all the birds flying in midair, Come,
gather together for the great supper of God,…”
What is this “supper of the
Lamb” or “supper of God”? In 19:6-9 it is talking about a wedding supper. To me
the first thing that comes to mind in Matthew 25:1-13.
“At that time the
kingdom of heaven (
This sounds much like
Matthew 24:36,42-44, All it talking about 70 AD.
What did the “Passover” mean
to the Jews? In Exodus 12, it describes the requirements, when to eat it, how
to eat it and it also describes what the Passover meant. It was also called
“Feast of Unleavened Bread, verse 17.
The Jews were told to get the “Passover lamb”, slaughter it and take its
blood and put it on the top and both sides of the doorframe, verse 21-22. In
13:3, it tells us that the children of
Jesus is described as the “Passover Lamb”
in 1 Corinthians 5:7. His blood was on the top of the cross, because of the
thorns on his head and the blood from his back and his blood from his feet.
There was blood on both sides, his hands. The first century people were told
how to eat it (Matthew 26:26-29, Mark
Look at the chart below:
OT Passover Physical slavery---------
Spiritual
Slavery----------Sin---------------unspotted lamb-----------year after year
This stopped completely
before the fall of Judaism when the sacrifices ceased. Hebrews 7-10 tells us
that what the priest had to do year after year for sin.
First Century Physical slavery---------
This “Passover:” meal was
still being preformed in the first century.
Spiritual
slavery--------the law -------------Jesus Christ-----------Until He Comes
Let's look at this phrase
"until He comes" in 1 Corinthians
(ALT) For as often
as you* shall be eating this bread and drinking this cup, you* proclaim the
death of the Lord, until He comes.
(ASV) For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink
the cup, ye proclaim the Lord's death till he come.
(BBE) For whenever you take the bread and the cup
you give witness to the Lord's death till he comes.
(CEV) The Lord meant that when you eat this bread
and drink from this cup, you tell about his death until he comes.
(GNB) This means that every time you eat this bread
and drink from this cup you proclaim the Lord's death until he comes.
(ISV) For as often as you eat this bread and drink
from this cup, you proclaim the Lord's death until he comes.
(KJV+) For1063
as often as3740 ye eat2068, 302 this5126
bread, 740 and2532 drink4095,
302 this5124 cup, 4221 ye do show2605
the3588 Lord's2962 death2288
till891 he(3739)
come.2064
(LITV) For as often as you may eat this
bread, and drink this cup, you solemnly proclaim the death of the Lord, until
He shall come.
(MKJV) For "as often as you eat
this bread and drink this cup, you show" the Lord's death until He shall
come.
(YLT) for as often as ye may eat this bread, and
this cup may drink, the death of the Lord ye do shew
forth--till he may come;
Albert Barns put it this
way, “Till he come - Until he returns to judge the world. This
demonstrates:
(1) That it was the
steady belief of the primitive church that the Lord Jesus would return to judge
the world; and,
(2) That it was designed that this
ordinance should be perpetuated, and observed to the end of time. In every
generation, therefore, and in every place where there are Christians, it is to
be observed, until the Son of God shall return; and the necessity of its
observance shall cease only when the whole body of the redeemed shall be
permitted to see their Lord, and there shall be no need of those emblems to
remind them of him, for all shall see him as he is.
(Comments RKM: When did Jesus return to judge the world?)
John Gills says this,
“ye do show the Lord's death till he come; or rather, as it may be
rendered in the imperative mood, as an exhortation, direction or command,
"show ye the Lord's death till he come"; since everyone that eats and
drinks at the Lord's table does not show forth his death, which is the great
end to be answered by it; for the design of the institution of it is to declare
that Christ died for the sins of his people: to represent him as crucified; to
set forth the manner of his sufferings and death, by having his body wounded,
bruised, and broken, and his blood shed; to express the blessings and benefits
which come by his death, and his people's faith of interest in them; and to
show their sense of gratitude, and declare their thankfulness for them; and all
this, "till he come"; which shows the continuance of this ordinance,
which is to last till Christ's second coming, where the carnal ordinances of
the former dispensation were shaken and removed; and also the continuance of
Gospel ministers to the end of the world, to administer it, and of churches to
whom it is to be administered: this assures of the certainty of Christ's second
coming; as it leads back to his coming in the flesh, suffering and dying in our
stead, and thereby obtaining redemption for us; it leads forward to expect and
believe he will come again, to put us into the full possession of the salvation
he is the author of; when there will be no more occasion for this ordinance, nor
any other, but all will cease, and God will be all in all. The apostle here
refers to a custom used by the Jews in the night of the Passover, to show forth
the reason of their practice, and that institution to their children; when
either (u).
"the
son asked the father, or if the son had not understanding (enough to ask), then
the father taught him, saying, how different is this night from all other
nights? for in all other nights we eat leavened and unleavened bread, but in
this night only unleavened; in all other nights we eat the rest of herbs, but
in this night bitter herbs; in all other nights we eat flesh roasted, broiled,
and boiled, in this night only roasted; in all other nights we wash once, in
this night twice; and as elsewhere (w) it is
added, in all other nights we eat sitting or lying, in this night all of us
lie; and according to the capacity of the child, the father teaches him,''
particularly he was to inform him what these several things
showed forth, or declared (x); as that
"the Passover מגיד, "declared", or "showed forth", that the
Lord passed over the houses of our fathers in Egypt; the bitter herbs
"showed forth", that the Egyptians made the lives of our fathers
bitter in Egypt; and the unleavened bread "declared" that they were redeemed;
and all these things are called הגדה, "the declaration", or showing
forth:''
and
there is a treatise called הגדה
של פסח,
"the showing forth of the Passover"; in which, besides the things
mentioned, and many others, it is observed (y),
that it was commanded the Jews לספר, "to declare" the going out of
Egypt, and that everyone that diligently declares the going out of Egypt, is
praiseworthy: now the apostle observes this end of the Lord's supper, to show
forth his death, in opposition to the notion of the "judaizing"
Christians at Corinth, who thought of nothing else but the showing forth of the
Passover, and the declaration of that deliverance and redemption wrought for
the people of Israel; whereas the true and only intent of it was to show forth
the death of Christ, redemption by him, and the greatness of his love expressed
therein, and which is to be continued till his second coming (Comments RKM:
When was Jesus’ Second Coming? The Passover brought forth life,
Jesus destroyed death and brought life in 70 AD. See article: Does Satan Exist Today); whereas the time was come when it should "be no more said, the Lord
liveth, that brought up the children of
(u) Misn. Pesach. c. 10. sect. 4. Haggadah Shel. Pesach.
p. 5. (w) Maimon. Chametz Umetzah, c. 8. sect. 2. (x) Moses Kotsensis
Mitzvot Tora prec. aff. 41. (y) P. 5, 6. Ed. Rittangel. & Seder. Tephillot.
Ed. Basil. fol. 243. 1.
The “Lord’s Supper” was not
necessary after the fall of Judaism. The Bible says that Jesus paid the price
for sin once for all. (1 Peter 3:18, Hebrews 10:2,10,
Read the section on sin and
the law in my article “Does
Satan Exist Today?”
for more information.
I myself believe that the so
call “Lord’s Supper” in not necessary today. I have seen that even in the
Preterist camp there are some who down right refuse to be consistent with
scripture. At the same time, I am not saying that the people who still partake the “Lord’s Supper” are wrong. It is because of our
freedom in Christ we can disagree on this topic. This comment could be said
about baptism also. (I also believe that baptism in not necessary after 70 AD.
That article is on the way.) This
article is just food for thought. I believe that a person can go too far with
Preterism and I do not believe I have. Some believe that it is ok to have more
that one wife after 70AD in which I disagree with. I try to hold God in the “Highest Honor” and
His word is truth.
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2002
Other articles include: Is Jesus Yahweh, God Almighty? , Does Satan Exist Today?, Baptism-Is It Still Required?, If Christ Has Not Come E-mail or call if you would like to ask any questions.