Does the Bible teach the idea commonly held concerning hell?
Does the hell of the Bible denote a place of burning torment, a condition of
suffering without end, which begins at death? What is the hell of the Bible?
The only way to arrive at the correct answer is to trace the words translated
‘hell’ from the beginning to the end of the Bible, and by their connections
ascertain exactly what the divine Word teaches on this important subject.
Before
we look into the definitions of hell, think about this fact. The word
"heaven" appears in the Bible over 550 times. If
"hell" is the fate of those who do not accept Jesus as their Lord,
how often do you think God should put it in the Bible Scriptures warning all
the people of the world the consequences of failing to accept Jesus as their
Savior? Thousands of times? At least as many times as the word
"heaven"? At least once in each book in the Bible? The facts
may shock you.
Number of times "Hell"
appears in the text in English Bible Translations
Bible Translations
|
Old
Testament |
New
Testament |
Total |
|
"Authorized"
King James Version * |
31 |
23 |
54 |
|
New King
James Version * |
19 |
13 |
32 |
|
New
International Version |
0 |
14 |
14 |
|
American
Standard Version |
0 |
13 |
13 |
|
New American
Standard Bible |
0 |
13 |
13 |
|
Revised
English Bible |
0 |
13 |
13 |
|
New Living
Translation |
0 |
13 |
13 |
|
Amplified |
0 |
13 |
13 |
|
Revised
Standard Version |
0 |
12 |
12 |
|
New
Revised Standard Version |
0 |
12 |
12 |
|
Darby |
0 |
12 |
12 |
|
New
Century Version |
0 |
12 |
12 |
|
Young's
Literal Translation (1891) |
0 |
0 |
0 |
|
|
0 |
0 |
0 |
|
Fenton's
Holy Bible in Modern English (1903) |
0 |
0 |
0 |
|
New
American Bible (1970) |
0 |
0 |
0 |
|
Restoration
of Original Sacred Name Bible (1976) |
0 |
0 |
0 |
|
Christian
Bible (1991) |
0 |
0 |
0 |
|
World
English Bible (in progress) |
0 |
0 |
0 |
|
Original
Bible Project (Dr. James Tabor, still in translation) |
0 |
0 |
0 |
|
Wesley's New
Testament (1755) |
- |
0 |
0 |
|
Scarlett's
New Testament (1798) |
- |
0 |
0 |
|
The New
Testament in Greek and English (Kneeland, 1823) |
- |
0 |
0 |
|
Twentieth
Century New Testament (1900) |
- |
0 |
0 |
|
|
- |
0 |
0 |
|
Panin's
Numeric English New Testament (1914) |
- |
0 |
0 |
|
The
People's New Covenant (Overbury, 1925) |
- |
0 |
0 |
|
Hanson's
New Covenant (1884) |
- |
0 |
0 |
|
Western
New Testament (1926) |
- |
0 |
0 |
|
New Testament
of our Lord and Savior Anointed (Tomanek, 1958) |
- |
0 |
0 |
|
Concordant
Literal New Testament (1983) |
- |
0 |
0 |
|
The New
Testament, A Translation (Clementson, 1938) |
- |
0 |
0 |
|
Emphatic
Diaglott, Greek/English Interlinear ( |
- |
0 |
0 |
|
The New
Testament, A New Translation (Greber, 1980) |
- |
0 |
0 |
|
Orthodox
Jewish Brit Chadasha [New Testament only] |
- |
0 |
0 |
|
Zondervan
Parallel New Testament in Greek and English (1975)** |
- |
0 |
0 |
|
Interlinear NASB-NIV Parallel New Testament in Greek and
English 1993)** |
- |
0 |
0 |
|
Interlinear
Greek-English New Testament ( |
- |
0 |
0 |
|
Jewish
Publication Society Bible Old Testament (1917) |
0 |
- |
0 |
|
Tanakh,
The Holy Scriptures, Old Testament (1985) |
0 |
- |
0 |
* The KJV and the NKJV are the only
two translations in the list above to use "hell" in the Old Testament.
Even the NKJV, which was only supposed to modernize the English words of the
traditional "Authorized Version," took many "hell"
references out. The use of the word "hell" is decreasing. The NKJV,
RSV, ASV, NRSV, and NASB are all technically revisions of the original KJV.
From 54 times to 32 and then to 12 or 13 times--who knows--maybe the next
revision will bring it in line with the many Bibles which have eliminated the pagan word Hell all together.
** A note about the Parallel Interlinear. I am referring to the
word-for-word translations beneath the Greek in these works, NOT the English
versions which are also in these reference works. Obviously the versions in
these books (NIV, NASB, and KJV) contain the word Hell as many times as they
normally would.
The
term "hell" is used 54 times in the King James Bible. 31
times in the Old Testament, and 23 times in the New Testament. What
is the meaning of the word "hell" in the bible? In the Old Testament,
it is translated from one word, Sheol. In the New Testament,
"hell" is translated from three words, tartaroo, Hades, and Gehenna.
Let us look at their meanings.
1) Tartaroo (Greek New
Testament):
"Hell" is translated only one
time from tartaroo, which is from the root Tartaros, which means "the
deepest abyss of Hades" (2 Peter 2:4). Apparently,
Peter was not writing about a place of flames and torment because "the angels
that sinned" are there "to be reserved unto
judgment." It would not make sense that angels would
be burning in hell before judgment is pronounced on them. If angels are
being reserved for judgment, it means they haven’t been judged yet.
After all, an accused murderer wouldn't serve 25 years and then be judged to
see if he belongs there or not. If the wicked were to live in a burning hell,
they’d have eternal life, just as the righteous, differing only in its
quality. The penalty for sin is death (Romans
2) Sheol (Hebrew Old
Testament) / Hades (Greek New Testament):
What
is the meaning of the word "hell" in the Old Testament?
"Hell" is always translated from the Hebrew word Sheol (which
is used 65 times in the Old Testament) and means simply "the world of the
dead". There is no hint of a place of fire (Jonah 2:1-2). Sheol is
translated as "grave" 31 times, "hell" 31 times, and
"pit" 3 times. "Sheol" is translated as "grave"
in Psa.89:48, Job 17:13, where both Job (a godly man) and the wicked
go to Sheol (hell). Sheol is described in terms of overwhelming floods,
water, or waves (Jonah 2:2-6). Sometimes, Sheol is pictured as a hunter
setting snares for its victim, binding them with cords, snatching them from the
land of the living (2 Sam. 22:6; Job 24:19; Ps. 116:3). Sheol is a prison
with bars, a place of no return (Job 7:9;
It does not teach a place of the conscious souls. The Greek
Septuagint, which our Lord used when he read or quoted from the Old Testament,
gives Hades as the exact equivalent of the Hebrew Sheol,
and when the Savior, or his apostles, used the word, they meant the same as is
meant in the Old Testament. Thus, the New Testament usage agrees exactly
with the Old Testament. Literally, Hades means "death" or the
"grave"; and figuratively, it means "destruction".
Hades is used 11 times in the New Testament. It is translated 10
times as "hell", and 1 time as "grave." Hades means
"the place (state) of departed souls, grave, hell." In Acts 2:27,31,
apparently, both the righteous and the wicked go to Hades, the same as
they both go to Sheol in the Old Testament, for Christ went to hell when
He died. In quoting the Old Testament prophecy regarding Christ, the New
Testament writer uses Hades. Compare Acts
1
Corinthians
Hades is also used in Matthew
3) Hinnom (Hebrew Old Testament) / Gehenna (Greek New
Testament):
"Hell
is translated twelve times from Gehenna (or, as it is sometimes
transliterated, Geenna). This is the Greek equivalent of the Hebrew word
Hinnom, which is the name of a valley outside
"Gehenna
was a well-known valley, near Jerusalem, in which the Jews in their idolatrous
days had sacrificed their children to the idol Moloch, in consequence of which
it was condemned to receive the offal and refuse and sewage of the city, and
into which the bodies of malefactors were cast and where to destroy the odor and
pestilential influences, continual fires were kept burning. Here fire, smoke,
worms bred by the corruption, and other repulsive features, rendered the place
a horrible one, in the eyes of the Jews. It was a locality with which they were
as well acquainted. But in process of time Gehenna came to be an emblem of the
consequences of sin, and to be employed figuratively by the Jews, to denote
those consequences. But always in this world. The Jews never used it to mean
torment after death, until long after Christ. The word had not the meaning of
post-mortem torment when our Savior used it." (J.W.
Hanson's, Bible Threatenings Explained).
Also note, not one single time in the
entire Old Testament was this word "Ge-Hinnom" translated as
"hell." See Leviticus 18:21; 20:2; Joshua 15:8;
Every
Bible reference using the word "hell" is addressed to this world. It
was also employed in the time of Christ as a symbol of moral corruption and
wickedness; but more especially as a figure of the terrible judgment of God on
the rebellious and sinful nation of the Jews. It was a place fit only for
waste.
Should
a Jew, God's chosen people, ever be given a burial in "Gehenna," it
would be the most humiliating thing that could ever happen to him. It would be
like saying to a Pharisee, that his life, his religious works, his devotion to
God was completely worthless, fit only for the dump.
Read
the prophecy concerning the apostate
Jeremiah
Jeremiah
Jeremiah
Jeremiah
Jeremiah 7:34 Then will I cause to cease from the cities of Judah,
and from the streets of Jerusalem, the voice of mirth, and the voice of
gladness, the voice of the bridegroom, and the voice of the bride: for the
land shall be desolate. (See Revelation 18:23).
This
passage undoubtedly refers to the literal destruction that would befall the
Jewish nation in 70 A.D., when many Jews experienced literally the
condemnation of Gehenna, by perishing miserably by fire and sword. Every
Bible reference about hell is to this world. Only Jesus and James
ever used the term Gehenna. Neither Paul, John, Peter nor Jude ever
employed it. Would they not have warned sinners concerning it, if there were a Gehenna
of torment after death? Neither Christ nor His apostles ever used the term Gehenna
to Gentiles, but only to Jews, which proves it is a locality
known only to Jews, whereas, if it were a place of punishment
after death for sinners, it would have been preached to the Gentiles as
well as to Jews.
The Book of Acts contains the record of the
apostolic preaching, and the history of the first planting of the church among
the Jews and Gentiles, and embraces a period of thirty years from the ascension
of Christ. In all this history, in all this preaching of the disciples and
apostles of Jesus, there is no mention of Gehenna. In thirty
years of missionary effort, these men of God, addressing people of all
characters and nations, never, under any circumstances, threaten them with
the torments of Gehenna, or allude to it in the most distant manner!
In the face of such a fact as this, can any man believe that Gehenna
signifies endless punishment; and that this is a part of divine
revelation, a part of the gospel message to the world?
Now,
if endless punishment awaits millions of the human race, and if it is denoted
by this word, is it possible that only David, Isaiah, Jeremiah, Daniel, and
Malachi use the word to define punishment, in all less than a dozen times,
while Job, Moses, Joshua, Ruth, Ezra, Nehemiah, Esther, Solomon, Ezekiel,
Hosea, Joel, Amos, Obadiah, Jonah, Micah, Hahum, Habbakkuk, Zephaniah, Haggai
and Zachariah NEVER employed it thus? Such silence is criminal,
on the popular hypothesis. These holy men should and would have made every
sentence bristle with the word, and thus have borne the awful message to the
soul with an emphasis that could neither be resisted nor disputed. The fact
that the word is so seldom, and by so few, applied to punishment,
and never in the Old Testament to punishment beyond death,
demonstrates that it cannot mean endless.
The Apocrypha, B.C.150-500, Philo Judaeus, A.D.40,
and Josephus, A.D.70-100, all refer to future punishment,
but none of them use Gehenna to describe it, which they would
have done, being Jews, had the word been then in use with that meaning. Were it
the name of a place of future torment then, can anyone doubt that it would be
found repeatedly in their writings? And does not the fact that it is never
found in their writings demonstrate that it had no such use then, and if
so, does it not follow that Christ used it in no such sense?
The
first Christian writer who calls Hell Gehenna is Justin Martyr
A.D., 140-166...
Tertullian, A.D. 200-220, was originally a Pagan; by birth, an
African, and a lawyer by profession. He seems to have believed in the strictly
endless punishment of the wicked, and to have argued against the doctrine of
their annihilation, or, to use his own words, against the doctrine that
"the wicked would be consumed, and not punished," that is, endlessly.
He is the first, as far as can be ascertained, who expressly affirmed, and
argued the question, that the torments of the damned would be equal in duration
to the happiness of the blessed.
What
I find very interesting is that Jesus and James only mentioned it. Doesn't
it seem absurd that Jesus and James speaking of "hell" to the believers
in Matthew 5:22, 29-30; 10:28; 9:42-47; 12:5 and James 3:6? Do they mean it literally?
Seems to me when they speak of "hell", it is just figurative.
It means a greater judgment while on earth, both the elect and
the non-elect.
Proverbs
The
Scripture shows that both the righteous and the wicked are to be recompensed in
the same place.
Isaiah 24:21, "And it shall come to pass in that day, that the
LORD shall punish the host of the high ones that are on high, and the kings of
the earth upon the earth."
Here is a plain statement that punishment
is to be administered "upon the earth" at some time.
Since
"hell" means "the grave," scripture should describe hell as
it would the grave. And in fact, this is what we find!
Hell
is described as being in the earth, and in the foundation of the
mountains - the foundations being under the earth (Deuteronomy 32:22). Hell is deep
- underground (Job 11:8). The direction of hell is down (Psalms 55:15,
Ezekiel 32:21, 27). Hell is low (Psalms 86:13). Hell is beneath
us (Proverbs
Psalms 92:7, "When the wicked spring as the grass, and when
all the workers of iniquity do flourish; it is that they shall be destroyed for
ever:"
Philippians 3:18-19, "...they are the enemies
of the cross of Christ: Whose end is destruction..."
Psalms 37:20, "But the wicked shall perish,
and the enemies of the LORD shall be as the fat of lambs: they shall consume;
into smoke shall they consume away."
When
referring to Psalms 37:20, Adam Clarke's Commentary says: "If we follow
the Hebreto, it intimates that they shall consume as the fat of lambs. That is,
as the fat is wholly consumed in sacrifices by the fire on the altar, so shall
they consume away in the fire of God’s wrath."
Psalms 104:35 "Let the sinners be consumed out of the earth,
and let the wicked be no more."
Malachi 4:1, "For, behold, the day cometh,
that shall burn as an oven; and all the proud, yea, and all that do wickedly,
shall be stubble: and the day that cometh shall burn them up, saith the LORD of
hosts, that it shall leave them neither root nor branch."
Matthew 13:40, "As therefore the tares are
gathered and burned in the fire; so shall it be in the end of this world."
John 15:6, "If a man abide not in me, he is
cast forth as a branch, and is withered; and men gather them, and cast them
into the fire, and they are burned."
Isaiah 66:24, "And they shall go forth, and
look upon the carcasses of the men that have transgressed against me: for their
worm shall not die, neither shall their fire be quenched; nor they shall be an
abhorring unto all flesh."
In
Isaiah 66:24, observe that the objects to suffer the effects of the unquenchable
fire and the work of the undying worms are "the carcasses
of men." All must know that the "carcasses of men"
are dead men. Living men are not called "carcasses."
When
speaking of the coming destruction of
Is
Brimstone and fire: these verses always speak of
brimstone and fire coming from heaven, not hell; and this
brimstone and fire is always on the earth, and never in "hell".
Genesis 19:24; Deuteronomy 29:23; 2 Kings 1:12,14, Job 1:16; 18:15; Psalm 11:6;
18:13, Isaiah 30:33; 34:9; Ezekiel 38:22; Luke 17:29; Revelation 14:10; 19:20;
20:10; 21:8
Weeping and gnashing of teeth: This is always speaking of
the destruction of
Unquenchable: is used in Leviticus 6:12-13; 2 King 22:17; 2
Chronicles 34:25; Isaiah 34:10; 42:3; 43:3; 66:24; Jeremiah 4:4; 7:20; 17:27;
21:12; Ezekiel 20:47; Matthew 12:20; Mark 9:43-48
The
apparent meaning of "shall not be quenched" is: when the Lord
pronounces a judgment of fire on something, that fire cannot be put out by
man until it has burned everything up, leaving only ashes.
Obviously, the fire at
Jude
1:7 clearly states an example of "eternal" fire. This is the same
Greek word that is used for "everlasting" fire and
"everlasting" punishment as used in Matthew 18:8 and Matthew 25:41,46
(Notice hell is "everlasting punishment", and not "everlasting
punishing". The punishment is eternal in its results, not in its
duration.
Also,
in Matthew 25:41, the "everlasting fire" is prepared for the
devil and his angles, and not prepared by the devil and his angels). The
fire and brimstone destroyed
Hanson wrote, "Many suppose that the words "unquenchable
fire" mean a fire of endless duration, whereas, it is a fire that cannot
be quenched until its purpose is accomplished. The meaning is, not that the
fire was endless, but that it was not quenched,--it continued to burn--until
all the material was destroyed. So the judgments of God on the Jews were
effectually done -- the nation was completely devastated and destroyed. They
were like chaff of the summer threshing floor in the consuming fire of God's
judgment."
Josephus says, [Jewish War, B. ii, ch.
xvii:6.] speaking of a fire that used to burn in the temple--though at the time
he wrote [A.D.80] it had gone out, and the temple was destroyed--"Every
one was accustomed to bring wood for the altar, that fuel might never be needed
for the fire, for it continued always unquenchable."
Strabo, (A.D. 70) described the "unquenchable
lamp" that used to burn in the Parthenon, though it has long since ceased
to burn. [Lib. ix: p. 606.]
Plutarch, (A.D. 110) in Numa, [p. 262]
speaks of places in
Eusebius, [A.D 325, Eccl. Hist. Lib. VI, chap. 41] in his
account of the martyrdom of Cronon and Julian, at
Isaiah
66:24 And they shall go forth, and look upon the carcases of the men
that have transgressed against me: for their worm shall not die, neither
shall their fire be quenched; nor they shall be an abhorring unto all
flesh.
Where
do they look for the unquenchable fire in the above verses? On earth or
in "hell"? Very clearly it is on earth, and it
occurred in 70 AD.
Furnace (of fire or
smoke): is used in
Genesis 19:28; Exodus 19:18; Psalm 21:9; Malachi 4:1; Matthew 13:42, 50;
Revelation 9:2
How
about this passage in Malachi?
Malachi 4:1 For, behold, the day cometh that shall burn as an
oven (See Matthew
Malachi 4:2 But unto you that fear my name shall
the Sun of righteousness arise with healing in his wings; and ye shall go
forth, and grow up as calves of the stall.
Malachi 4:3 And ye shall tread down the wicked;
for they shall be ashes under the soles of your feet in the day that I shall do
this, saith the LORD of hosts.
Malachi 4:4 Remember ye the Law of Moses my
servant, which I commanded unto him in Horeb for all
Malachi 4:5 Behold, I will send you Elijah the
prophet (John the Baptist) before the coming of the great and dreadful day of
the LORD (Parousia of Christ):
Malachi 4:6 And he shall turn the heart of the
fathers to the children, and the heart of the children to their fathers, lest I
come and smite the earth (land - destruction of
Clearly,
this occurred in the first century when
For ever and
everlasting: Does "forever" always
mean never ending? No. In the Bible, "for ever" is used
where it has the meaning of lasting only as long as the duration of the
event or as long as the person lives. Jonah calls "three
days and three nights", "forever" (Jonah
Aion (Greek New Testament) / Oham = Hebrew (Hebrew Old
Testament) [most Bibles put "forever" or "everlasting"]:
First
we need to check the background of these words:
Before
the Hebrew Old Testament was translated into Greek (200-300 B.C., according to
Prideaux, or during the reign of Ptolemy Philadelphus, 285-247 B. C., say other
authorities) this word aionion was in common use by the Greeks. Homer,
Hesiod, Aeschylus, Pindar, Sophocles, Aristotle, Hippocrates, Empedocles,
Euripedes, Philoctetes, and Plato, all use the word, but never once does one
of them give it the sense of eternity.
Aristotle: "The entire heaven is one and eternal (aidios)
having neither beginning nor end of an entire aion." And still more to the
purpose is this quotation concerning God's existence: "Life and 'an aion
continuous and eternal, zoe kai aion sunekes kai aidios.'" Here the word
aidios, (eternal) is employed to qualify aion and impart to it what it had not
of itself, the sense of eternal. Aristotle could be guilty of no such language
as "an eternal eternity." Had the word aion contained the idea of
eternity in his time, or in his mind, he would not have added aidios.
Josephus and Philo, Jewish Greeks, who wrote between
the Old and New Testaments, use the word aionion with the meaning of temporal
duration, always.
Alluding
to the Pharisees, Josephus says: "They believe that the wicked are
detained in an everlasting prison (eirgmon aidion) subject to eternal
punishment" (aidios timoria) and the Essenes (another, Jewish sect)
"Allotted to bad souls a dark, tempestuous place, full of never-ceasing
punishment (timoria adialeipton) where they suffer a deathless
punishment, (athanaton timorian)."
Philo, who was contemporary with Christ, generally used aidion
to denote endless, and always used aionion to describe temporary
duration. Dr. Mangey, in his edition of Philo, says he never used aionion
for interminable duration. He uses the exact phraseology of Matthew
25:46, precisely as Christ used it. "It is better not to promise than not
to give prompt assistance, for no blame follows in the former case, but in the
latter there is dissatisfaction from the weaker class, and a deep hatred and everlasting
punishment (kolasis aionios) from such as are more powerful."
Here we have the exact terms employed by our word, to show that aionion
did not mean endless but did mean limited duration in the time of
Christ.
You
may point to Jude 6. "And the angels which kept not their first estate,
but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under
darkness unto the judgment of the great day."
Hanson
wrote, "The word here rendered "everlasting" is not aionios,
temporary duration, but aidios, whose intrinsic meaning is endless. It
is found in one other place in the New Testament, Romans 1:20, "For the
invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being
understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and
Godhead."
Now
it must be admitted that this word among the Greeks had the sense of eternal,
and should be understood as having that meaning wherever found, unless by
express limitation it is shorn of its proper meaning. It is further admitted
that had aidios occurred where aionios does, there would be no
escape from the conclusion that the New Testament teaches Endless Punishment.
It is further admitted that the word is here used in the exact sense of aionios,
as is seen in the succeeding verse: "Even as
1) The construction of the language shows that the
latter word limits the former. The aidios chains are even as the aionion
fire. As if one should say "I have been infinitely troubled, I have been
vexed for an hour," or "He is an endless talker, he can talk five
yours on a stretch." Now while "infinitely" and
"endless" usually convey the sense of unlimited, they are here limited
by what follows, as aidios, eternal, is limited by aionios,
indefinitely long.
2) That this is the correct exegesis is evident from
still another limitation of the word. "The angels...he hath reserved in
everlasting chains unto the judgment of the great day." Had Jude said that the angels are
held in aidios chains, and stopped there, not limiting the word, it
might be claimed that he taught their eternal imprisonment. But when he limits
the duration by aionios and them expressly states that it is only unto
a certain date, it follows that the imprisonment will terminate,
even though we find applied to it a word that intrinsically signifies eternal
duration, and that was used by the Greeks to convey the idea of eternity, and
was attached to punishment by the Greek Jews of our Savior's times, to describe
endless punishment, in which they were believers.
But
observe, while this word aidios was in universal use among the Greek
Jews of our Savior's day, to convey the idea of eternal duration, and was used
by them to teach endless punishment, Jesus never allowed himself to use it in
connection with punishment, nor did any of his disciples but one, and he but
once, and then carefully and expressly limited its meaning. Can demonstration
go further than this to show that Jesus carefully avoided the phraseology by
which his contemporaries described the doctrine of endless punishment?"
And
as for the attributes of God it is quite simple. God is before the ages, he
created the ages, he himself wasn't created, he's the King of the Ages, he
spoke the ages into being, he has no beginning, he has no end, he is the
self-existent one, etc. Therefore "olam" and "aionion"
when applied to God (and His kingdom) denote "infinity" or
"eternality" because of the object in view.
There
are too many scriptures to mention them all using the term "forever"
or "everlasting." Here are just a few as examples:
"We
see the word "everlasting" applied to God's covenant with the Jews;
to the priesthood of Aaron; to the statutes of Moses; to the time the Jews were
to possess the land of Canaan; to the mountains and hills; and to the doors of
the Jewish temple. We see the word forever applied to the duration of a man's
earthly existence; to the time a child was to abide in the temple; to the
continuance of Gehazi's leprosy; to the duration of the life of David; to the
duration of a king's life; to the duration of the earth; to the time the Jews
were to possess the land of Canaan; to the time they were to dwell in
Jerusalem; to the time a servant was to abide with his master; to the time
Jerusalem was to remain a city; to the duration of the Jewish temple; to the
laws and ordinances of Moses; to the time David was to be king over Israel; to
the throne of Solomon; to the stones that were set up at Jordan; to the time
the righteous were to inhabit the earth; and to the time Jonah was in the
fish's belly.
"We
find the phrase forever and ever applied to the hosts of heaven, or the sun,
moon, and stars; to a writing contained in a book; to the smoke that went up
from the burning
"But
the law covenant is abolished; the priesthood of Aaron and his sons has ceased;
the ordinances, and laws, and statutes of Moses are abrogated; the Jews have
long since been dispossessed of the land of Canaan, have been driven from Judea,
and God has brought upon them a reproach and a shame; the man to the duration
of whose life the word forever was applied is dead; David is dead, and has
ceased to reign over Israel; the throne of Solomon no longer exists; the Jewish
temple is demolished, and Jerusalem has been overthrown, so that there is not
left "one stone upon another;" the servants of the Jews have been
freed from their masters; Gehazi is dead, and no one believes he carried his
leprosy with him into the future world; the stones that were set up at Jordan
have been removed, and the smoke that went up from the burning land of Idumea
has ceased to ascend; the righteous do not inherit the earth endlessly, and no
one believes that the mountains and hills, as such, are indestructible; the
fire that burnt on the Jewish altar has long since ceased to burn; judgment has
been executed; and no Christian believes that those who fall by death will
never be awakened from their slumbers.
"Now,
as these words are used in this limited sense in the Scriptures, why should it
be supposed that they express endless duration when applied to
punishment?" (Thomas B. Thayer - The Origin and History of the Doctrine of
Endless Punishment). See Everlasting. - Gen. 17:7, 8, 13; 48:4; 49:26; Exodus.
40:15; LeV
Hanson wrote, "All these and numerous other eternal,
everlasting things -- things that were to last forever, and to which the
various aionion words are applied--have now ended, and if these hundreds
of instances must denote limited duration why should the few times in which
punishments are spoken of have any other meaning? Even if endless duration were
the intrinsic meaning of the word, all intelligent readers of the Bible would
perceive that the word must be employed to denote limited duration in the
passages above cited. And surely in the very few times in which it is connected
with punishment it must have a similar meaning."
These
following words and passages are applied to the kind of life we have:
Heb. 7:15-16, "And it is yet far more evident: for that after
the similitude of Melchizedek there ariseth another priest, who is made, not
after the law of a carnal commandment, but after the power of an endless (akatalutos, imperishable) life."
1 Pet. 1:3-4, "Blessed be the God and Father
of our Lord Jesus Christ, which according to his abundant mercy, hath begotten
us again unto a lively hope by the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead,
to an inheritance incorruptible, (aphtharton) and undefiled, and that
fadeth not (amaranton) away."
1 Pet. 5:4, "and when the chief Shepherd
shall appear, ye shall receive a crown of glory that fadeth not (amarantinos)
away."
1 Tim. 1:17, "Now unto the King eternal,
immortal (aphtharto), invisible, the only wise God be honor and
glory forever and ever, Amen."
Rom.
Rom. 2:7, "To them who by patient continuance
in well doing seek for glory and honor and immortality (aptharsain) eternal life."
1 Cor. 9:25, "Now they do it to obtain a corruptible crown; but
we an incorruptible."
1 Cor. 15:42, "So also is the resurrection of
the dead. It is sown in corruption, it is raised in incorruption (aphtharsian)."
See also verse 50.
1 Cor. 15:51-54, "Behold I shew you a
mystery; we shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed, in a moment, in
the twinkling of an eye, at the last trump: for the trumpet shall sound, and
the dead shall be raised incorruptible, (aphthartoi) and we shall
be changed. For this corruptible must put on incorruption, (aphtharsian)
and this mortal must put on immortality (athanasian) So when
this corruptible shall have put on incorruption, (aphtharsian) and
this mortal shall have put on immortality, (athanasian) then
shall be brought to pass the saying that is written, Death is swallowed up in
victory."
2 Tim. 1:10, "Hath brought life and immortality (aphtharisan)
to light, through the gospel."
1 Tim. 6:16, "Who only hath immortality (athanasian)."
Now these words are applied to God and the
soul's happiness. They are words that in the Bible are never applied to
punishment or anything perishable. They would have been affixed to
punishment had the Bible intended to teach endless punishment. And
certainly they show the error of those who declare that the indefinite word aionion
is all the word, or the strongest one in the Bible, declarative of the endlessness
of life beyond the grave.
Aren't those who do not hear or accept the Gospel doomed
by God?
In
the parable of the prodigal son (Luke
What
do you imagine the boy would have thought some time later, when he had lost
everything -- money, friends, and self-respect -- if, when in the depths of
desperation, he called to mind his father, and heard echoing through his head,
"You no-good-for-nothing impudent, rebellious ass of a boy! You'll burn in
hell!" Think about it for a moment. And then ask yourself the question:
What was it that made the boy want to return home in the story that Jesus told?
Was it the picture of a father breathing hell and damnation or of a sorrowful
man who loved him enough to give him his freedom to do as he pleased?
We
are not in the position of passing ultimate judgment on any person. We do not
know how God will judge a man or woman in the eternities because we lack those
omniscient, omnipotent, all-loving keys of love. To be sure we are called to
make some local judgments of individuals that affect the welfare of the Body
(Church), our families, and our countries, but we have never been given the
mandate to pass judgment on any individual in his relationship to eternity.
Never! And I challenge anyone to show me in the scripture where we have been
given that mandate.
That
Prodigal Son would never have come home had the last picture of his father been
of a vengeful, condemning ogre. Once he had realized his stupidity, his
egotism, his selfishness, his rudeness -- yes, his rebelliousness and his being
an "ass-head" for himself -- he had only one picture to fall on that
would entice him home into loving care -- the picture of a sorrowful but loving
father.
It
is a serious mistake to conclude that a person is lost just because he rejects
our preaching. Have we suddenly become gods whose message cannot be refused on
pain of everlasting destruction? We do not know the background of anyone fully.
We do not, in truth, know the path any single soul has walked within himself.
Only God knows that. There are times and seasons when a soul is receptive to
the Word, times and seasons which God alone knows. Anyone who calls him- or
herself a Christian must be sensitive to these things to be any use to either
man or God.
There
are ways to warn people of the consequences of sin that will endear them to God
and cause them to repent, and there are ways that will turn them off Him
altogether and encourage them to rebel all the more -- because they simply
can't see the love in the inadequate human visions of eternity. God's chief
purpose is to reveal His love to us -- to "draw" us to Him, not to
"compel" us to Him. The god of the whip has another name.
It is not for us to judge men whether they are fit for heaven or hell. That is none of our business, and I would even venture to suggest that those who act as God in this way run the risk of finding themselves in that place they are so busily condemning others to. It is our duty to warn them not to do it and to protect innocent